Free ASWB Clinical (LCSW) Practice Test

Question 1 of 50 · Score so far: 0

1. A 34-year-old client reports three weeks of elevated mood, decreased need for sleep, and grandiosity, but describes the mood as "uncomfortably wired, not fun." Her episodes last 4–7 days, occur only in spring, and respond rapidly to lorazepam. TSH is elevated. Which interpretation is MOST clinically sound? A) Bipolar I disorder — duration and impairment establish the diagnosis regardless of seasonality B) Bipolar II disorder — the "uncomfortable" quality indicates hypomania rather than mania C) Seasonal pattern specifier on major depressive disorder D) The presentation may reflect hyperthyroid-induced mood symptoms